1. Which one of the following is not vested in the Union by the Constitution (Fortieth Amendment) Act?
A. All mines and minerals lying in the ocean within its territorial waters
B. All resources of the Exclusive Economic Zone
C. Fisheries
D. All things of value in the ocean within its continental shelf
The Fortieth Amendment, enacted in 1976, amended Article 297 of the Constitution of India. This amendment vested in the Union Government all resources found in India's maritime zones, including the territorial waters, continental shelf, and exclusive economic zone (EEZ).
The amendment specifically vested the following in the Union:
While fishing and fisheries beyond the territorial waters are vested in the Union, fisheries within the territorial waters are on the state list and therefore are not vested in the Union by this amendment.
2. Which one of the following does not describe the procedure or substance of the amendments to the Indian Constitution?
A. The Bill to amend the Constitution has to be laid in any House of the Union Parliament.
B. The basic features of the Constitution cannot be amended.
C. In the event of a deadlock between the two Houses of the Parliament, there is no provision for a joint session,
D. The President cannot veto a Bill for the amendment of the Constitution,
(a) is correct:
A Constitution Amendment Bill can be introduced in either House of Parliament.
(b) is correct:
The "basic structure" doctrine, established by the Supreme Court, states that certain fundamental features of the Constitution cannot be amended.
(d) is correct:
The President does not have the power to veto a Constitution Amendment Bill.
(c) is incorrect:
If the Houses disagree on a Constitutional Amendment Bill, a joint session of Parliament can be convened to resolve the deadlock.
3. Arrange the following chronologically:
1. 44th Amendment Act
2. Minerva Mills Case
3. Amendment to Preamble
4. Kesavananda Bharati Case
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A. 4-3-1-2
B. 4-3-2-1
C. 3-4-1-2
D. 2-4-3-1
Amendment to Preamble:
This occurred in 1976.
Kesavananda Bharati Case:
This landmark case happened in 1973, where the Supreme Court established the "Basic Structure Doctrine" limiting Parliament's power to amend the Constitution.
44th Amendment Act:
This amendment took place in 1978, and notably removed the Right to Property from the list of Fundamental Rights.
Minerva Mills Case:
This case happened in 1980, further reaffirming the Basic Structure Doctrine and striking down certain amendments to the Constitution.
4. Which one of the following is a correct description of the Indian Federal System?
A. Dual citizenship
B. States have equal representation in the Council of States
C. Persons belonging to the all-India services can be dismissed or removed by the States
D. Unlike in the USA, there is no dual system of courts.
Dual citizenship is not a feature of the Indian federal system:
India has a single citizenship system, meaning citizens only hold Indian citizenship.
States do not have equal representation in the Council of States (Rajya Sabha):
Representation is based on population, not equality.
Persons belonging to the All-India Services cannot be dismissed or removed by the States:
These services are appointed by the Centre and can only be dismissed or removed by the President.
The key difference is the unified court system:
In the USA, there are separate federal and state court systems, while India has a unified, integrated court system.
5. Who among the following was the advisor to the Constituent Assembly?
A. B.N. Rau
B. B.R. Ambedkar
C. Pattabhi Sitaramayya
D. Alladi Krishnaswamy
B.N. Rau was the advisor to the Constituent Assembly of India. He was a distinguished jurist who prepared the initial draft of the constitution based on the reports of various subcommittees.
Other individuals and their roles
6. Which of the following terms were added to the Preamble of the Constitution of India by the Constitutional
Amendment, 1976?
1. Socialist
2. Secular
3. Integrity
4. Fraternity
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 2 and 4 only
D. 1, 3 and 4 only
The 42nd Constitutional Amendment of 1976 added the words "Socialist", "Secular", and "Integrity" to the Preamble of the Indian Constitution.
7. Which of the following Articles was defended by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar on the plea that it would be used as 'a matter of last resort'?
A. Article 352
B. Article 359
C. Article 356
D. Article 368
Dr. B.R. Ambedkar advocated for Article 356 to be used only in extreme situations, as a "last resort," because it allows for the imposition of President's Rule in a state if the constitutional machinery fails. He emphasized that it should remain largely unused and only triggered when other measures fail to address a state crisis.
8. Who among the following stated in the Constituent Assembly that on 26th January, 1950, India was going to enter a life of contradictions?
A. Dr. B. R. Ambedkar
B. Jawaharlal Nehru
C. Mahatma Gandhi
D. S. P. Mukherjee
Dr. B. R. Ambedkar stated in the Constituent Assembly that on 26th January, 1950, India was going to enter a life of contradictions. He said this because while India would have political equality, it would have social and economic inequality.
9. The 11 Schedule of the Constitution of India distributes powers between:
A. the Union and the State Legislatures
B. the State Legislatures and the Panchayat
C. the Municipal Corporation and the Panchayat
D. the Gram Sabha and the Panchayat
The 11th Schedule of the Indian Constitution was introduced by the 73rd Constitutional Amendment and specifically deals with the distribution of powers between the State Legislatures and the Panchayats.
10. Who was the President of the Constituent Assembly?
A. B. R. Ambedkar
B. Rajendra Prasad
C. Alladi Krishnaswami Aiyar
D. Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan
who was elected as the permanent President of the Constituent Assembly. While B. R. Ambedkar was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee, Rajendra Prasad held the position of President of the Constituent Assembly itself.
11. Which of the following provision(s) of the Constitution of India became effective from 26th November 1949?
1. Elections
2. Citizenship
3. Emergency provisions
4. Appointment of the Judges
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 1, 2 and 3 only
D. 2 and 4 only
Citizenship and Elections:
These provisions of the Constitution of India came into effect immediately on November 26, 1949, as they were considered crucial for establishing the legal framework of the new nation.
Emergency Provisions and Appointment of Judges:
These provisions, along with most other parts of the Constitution, came into force on January 26, 1950, the official date of the Constitution's adoption.
12. How many types of justice, liberty, equality and fraternity in that order has been mentioned in the Preamble of the constitution of India?
A. 3, 5, 2, 1
B. 1,3,5,2
C. 2, 5, 3, 1
D. 5, 2, 1, 3
The Preamble of the Indian Constitution mentions three types of justice (social, economic, and political), five types of liberty (thought, expression, belief, faith, and worship), two types of equality (status and opportunity), and one type of fraternity (assuring the dignity of the individual and the unity and integrity of the Nation).
13. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Preamble to the Indian constitution?
1. It is a source from which Parliament derives its power authority.
2. Any citizen of India can move to the court if the State or its authority violates any provision envisaged in the Preamble.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Statement 2 is correct:
While the Preamble doesn't directly grant legal power to anyone, courts often use the Preamble to interpret the Constitution. If a citizen believes the State is violating the principles outlined in the Preamble, they can use this argument in court to challenge actions that go against the spirit of the Constitution.
Statement 1 is incorrect:
The Preamble does not explicitly mention Parliament or give it authority. The source of authority for the Constitution, according to the Preamble itself, is "We, the People of India".
Key points about the Preamble:
Function:
It states the objectives and goals of the Indian Constitution, outlining the type of state it aims to establish.
Interpretation:
Although not enforceable directly, courts use the Preamble to understand the spirit and purpose of the Constitution when interpreting its provisions.
Amendments:
The Preamble has been amended once, in 1976, to add the words "Socialist", "Secular", and "Democratic".
14. Which of the following is the first State in India formed on the basis of languages?
A. Kerala
B. Madhya Pradesh
C. Andhra Pradesh
D. Uttar Pradesh
Andhra Pradesh was the first Indian state formed on a linguistic basis, meaning it was created specifically to cater to the Telugu-speaking population.
15. Which one of the following Schedules to the Constitution of India provides for setting up of Autonomous District Councils?
A. Third Schedule
B. Fourth Schedule
C. Fifth Schedule
D. Sixth Schedule
The Sixth Schedule of the Indian Constitution specifically deals with the establishment and functioning of Autonomous District Councils (ADCs) in certain tribal areas of the states of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram. These councils are designed to provide self-governance to tribal communities within these states, allowing them to manage their own affairs related to legislation, administration, justice, and finances to a certain degree.
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