Polity for Defence Warriors set 7 ( NDA / CDS / AFCAT )

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• 0 Questions answered incorrect
• 15 Questions unattempted

• 1

  1. Which of the following is not a central tenet of Socialism?

  • A

    A. Historical Materialism
     

  • B

    B. Dialectical Materialism
     

  • C

    C. Alienation and Class Struggle
     

  • D

    D. Individual Freedom

  Explanation

  • Individual freedom is not a central tenet of traditional socialism.
  • Socialism primarily emphasizes collective well-being, social equality, and communal ownership of the means of production, often prioritizing these over the liberal concept of individual freedom, which is often associated with capitalism and individual rights in liberal ideologies. 
• 2

  2. According to Granville Austin, which of the following was/were the most significant contributions of India to constitution making?

  • A

    A. Majority rule and minority rights
     

  • B

    B. Consensus and Accommodation
     

  • C

    C. Social revolution and Political Freedom
     

  • D

    D. Asymmetrical Federal structure

  Explanation

  According to Granville Austin, the most significant contribution of India to constitution-making was (b) Consensus and Accommodation. He argued that the Indian framers were able to navigate a diverse nation by creating a constitution through compromise, dialogue, and accommodating competing interests and ideas. 

  • Consensus and Accommodation: Austin considered this the primary and most significant contribution of India's constitution-making process, emphasizing the spirit of compromise and dialogue among diverse groups in the Constituent Assembly.
  • Majority rule and minority rights: While a fundamental principle, Austin's focus was more on the process of how it was balanced through consensus rather than being the primary contribution itself.
  • Social revolution and political freedom: These are described as the goals or objectives the constitution aimed to achieve, not the unique contribution to the method of constitution-making.
  • Asymmetrical Federal structure: This is an important feature of the Indian Constitution, but it was not the primary contribution identified by Austin. He discussed the federal structure but did not highlight its asymmetrical nature as the most significant contribution to the overall process. 
• 3

  3. The provisions in Fifth Schedule and Sixth Schedule in the Constitution of India are made in order to

  • A

    A. protect the interests of Scheduled Tribes
     

  • B

    B. determine the boundaries between States
     

  • C

    C. determine the powers, authority and responsibilities of Panchayats
     

  • D

    D. protect the interests of all the border States

  Explanation

  (a) protect the interests of Scheduled Tribes. The Fifth and Sixth Schedules provide special provisions for the administration and control of tribal areas and the protection of Scheduled Tribes' rights and interests. 

  • Fifth Schedule: Contains provisions for the administration and control of scheduled areas and scheduled tribes in any state except the four states listed below.
  • Sixth Schedule: Deals with the administration of tribal areas in the states of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram, providing greater autonomy through autonomous district councils.
  • Other options are incorrect: The schedules do not determine the boundaries between states, nor do they protect the interests of all border states. While the schedules modify the application of general laws, they exclude Panchayati Raj provisions to protect traditional tribal governance and are not about determining the powers of Panchayats themselves. 
• 4

  4.

  

  • A

    A.

  • B

    B.

  • C

    C.

  • D

    D.

  Explanation

  The incorrectly matched pair is (b) Second Schedule: The forms of oaths and affirmations. The Second Schedule deals with the emoluments, allowances, and privileges of the President, Governors, and other constitutional officeholders, while the forms of oaths and affirmations are found in the Third Schedule. 

  • (a) Eighth Schedule: Languages: This is correctly matched. The Eighth Schedule lists the recognized languages of India.
  • (b) Second Schedule: The forms of oaths and affirmations: This is incorrect. The Second Schedule outlines the provisions for emoluments, allowances, and privileges of various constitutional officeholders. The forms of oaths and affirmations are in the Third Schedule.
  • (c) Fourth Schedule: Allocation of seats in the Council of States: This is correctly matched. The Fourth Schedule makes provisions for the allocation of seats in the Rajya Sabha (Council of States) to the states and union territories.
  • (d) Tenth Schedule: Provisions as to disqualification on the ground of defection: This is correctly matched. The Tenth Schedule contains the anti-defection law, detailing provisions for the disqualification of members of Parliament and state legislatures on the grounds of defection. 
• 5

  5. Consider the following statements:
  1. The Amendment procedure has been provided in Article 368 of the Constitution of India.
  2. The consent of the States is mandatory for all Amendments to the Constitution of India.
  Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  • A

    A. 1 only
     

  • B

    B. 2 only
     

  • C

    C. Both 1 and 2
     

  • D

    D. Neither 1 nor 2

  Explanation

  The correct option is (a) 1 only, because the amendment procedure is indeed in Article 368 of the Constitution of India, but the consent of the States is not mandatory for all amendments; it is only required for those that affect the federal structure of the country. 

  • Statement 1 is correct: Article 368 in Part XX of the of the Constitution of India lays down the procedure for its amendment.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect: The consent of the states is not required for every amendment. It is only needed for amendments that concern the federal structure. Amendments that do not affect the federal character can be amended by a special majority of the Parliament alone. 
• 6

  

  • A

    A.

  • B

    B.

  • C

    C.

  • D

    D.

  Explanation

  The correct matching is A-4 (Constitutional Amendments - Article 368), B-3 (Finance Commission - Article 280), C-1 (Financial Emergency - Article 360), and D-2 (All India Services - Article 312). 

  • A. Constitutional Amendments is matched with 4. Article 368.
  • B. Finance Commission is matched with 3. Article 280.
  • C. Financial Emergency is matched with 1. Article 360.
  • D. All India Services is matched with 2. Article 312. 
• 7

  

  • A

    A.

  • B

    B.

  • C

    C.

  • D

    D.

  Explanation

  The correct matching is (a) 3241, where the Comptroller and Auditor General of India is matched with Article 148, the Finance Commission with Article 280, the Administrative Tribunal with Article 323(A), and the Union Public Service Commission with Article 315. 

  • A. Comptroller and Auditor General of India: Article 148
  • B. Finance Commission: Article 280
  • C. Administrative Tribunal: Article 323(A)
  • D. Union Public Service Commission: Article 315 
• 8

  8. The Supreme Court of India enunciated the doctrine of 'Basic Structure of the Constitution' in

  • A

    A. the Golaknath Case in 1967
     

  • B

    B. the Sajjan Singh Case in 1965
     

  • C

    C. the Shankari Prasad Case in 1951
     

  • D

    D. the Keshavanand Bharati case in 1973

  Explanation

  The doctrine of the 'Basic Structure of the Constitution' was enunciated in the (d) Keshavanand Bharati case in 1973. In this landmark judgment, the Supreme Court of India held that Parliament has the power to amend the Constitution, but it cannot use this power to alter or destroy its "basic structure". 

  • The Keshavanand Bharati Case (1973): This case established the doctrine, ruling that while Parliament can amend any part of the Constitution, the amendments cannot violate the fundamental or basic features of the constitution.
  • Background: The case involved Keshvanand Bharati, who challenged the Kerala government's land reform laws, arguing they violated his fundamental right to property.
  • Significance: This judgment is considered a cornerstone of India's constitutional law, as it provides a legal principle to safeguard the Constitution's foundational principles from being changed or removed through amendments. 
• 9

  9. The Constitution of India was adopted by the Constituent Assembly on:

  • A

    A. 26th January 1950
     

  • B

    B. 15th August 1947
     

  • C

    C. 30th January 1948
     

  • D

    D. 26th November 1949

  Explanation

  The correct answer is (d) 26th November 1949. The Indian Constitution was adopted by the Constituent Assembly on this date, though it officially came into effect on January 26, 1950. 

  • Adoption: The Constituent Assembly adopted the Constitution of India on November 26, 1949, according to sources like Testbook and Vedantu.
  • Enforcement: The Constitution became effective and legally enforced on January 26, 1950, which is celebrated as Republic Day in India. 
• 10

  10. On 26th November, 1949, which of the following provisions of the Constitution of India came into effect?
  1. Citizenship
  2. Elections
  3. Provisional Parliament
  4. Fundamental Rights
  Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  • A

    A. 2, 3 and 4 only
     

  • B

    B. 1, 2 and 3 only
     

  • C

    C. 1 and 3 only
     

  • D

    D. 1 and 2 only

  Explanation

  On November 26, 1949, certain provisions of the Constitution of India related to citizenship, elections, and the Provisional Parliament were brought into immediate effect. The rest of the Constitution, including the Fundamental Rights, came into force on January 26, 1950. 

  Here is a breakdown of the provisions:

  • Citizenship: Articles 5, 6, 7, 8, and 9 were enacted immediately to address the issue of citizenship for those affected by the partition of India.
  • Elections: Article 324, concerning the Election Commission, was enforced to establish the necessary machinery for conducting elections under the new constitutional framework.
  • Provisional Parliament: Articles related to the Provisional Parliament (Articles 379, 380, and 388) were implemented to manage the transition from the Constituent Assembly to a new Parliament after the first general elections in 1952.
  • Fundamental Rights: The chapter on Fundamental Rights (Part III, Articles 12–35) and the bulk of the constitution became effective on January 26, 1950, which is celebrated as Republic Day. 

  Therefore, the provisions that came into effect on November 26, 1949, were Citizenship, Elections, and Provisional Parliament. The correct answer is (b) 1, 2 and 3 only.

• 11

  11. Which one of the following Constitutional Amendments states that the total number of Ministers, including the Prime Minister, in the Council of Ministers shall not exceed fifteen percent of the total number of members of the House of the People?

  • A

    A. 90
     

  • B

    B. 91
     

  • C

    C. 92nd
     

  • D

    D. 93

  Explanation

  The correct answer is (b) 91st. The 91st Constitutional Amendment Act of 2003 states that the total number of ministers, including the Prime Minister, in the Council of Ministers cannot exceed fifteen percent of the total number of members of the House of the People (Lok Sabha). 

  • (b) 91st: This amendment, passed in 2003, set the cap on the size of the Council of Ministers at 15% of the total strength of the Lok Sabha. It also applies this limit to state-level councils of ministers under Article 164.
  • 90th, 92nd, and 93rd: These amendments do not contain this specific provision. The 91st Amendment was crucial in preventing the unnecessary expansion of ministries and ensuring greater efficiency and accountability in governance. 
• 12

  12. Consider the following statements:
  1. An amendment to the Constitution of India can be initiated by an introduction of a bill in the Lok Sabha only.
  2. If such an amendment seeks to make changes in the federal character of the Constitution, the amendment also requires to be ratified by the legislature of all the States of India.
  Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  • A

    A. 1 only
     

  • B

    B. 2 only
     

  • C

    C. Both 1 and 2
     

  • D

    D. Neither 1 nor 2

  Explanation

  Neither of the statements is correct.

  The correct position is:

  1. An amendment to the Constitution of India can be initiated by the introduction of a Bill in either House of Parliament (Lok Sabha or Rajya Sabha), not in the Lok Sabha only.
  2. If such an amendment seeks to make changes in the federal character of the Constitution (e.g., election of the President, extent of executive power of the Union or States, Supreme or High Courts, distribution of legislative powers, representation of States in Parliament, or the provisions of Article 368 itself), the amendment requires to be ratified by the legislatures of not less than one-half of the States, not all the States. This ratification is done by a simple majority in the respective state legislatures. 

  Therefore, both statements are incorrect. The correct option is (d) Neither 1 nor 2.

• 13

  13. 'Economic Justice' as one of the objectives of the Indian Constitution has been provided in

  • A

    A. the Preamble and the Fundamental Rights
     

  • B

    B. the Preamble and the Directive Principles of State Policy
     

  • C

    C. the Fundamental Rights and the Directive Principles of State Policy
     

  • D

    D. None of the above

  Explanation

  • The Preamble of the Indian Constitution explicitly secures to all its citizens "Justice, social, economic and political". This makes economic justice one of the stated objectives of the Constitution.
  • The Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP), contained in Part IV of the Constitution, provide detailed principles and guidelines for the State to work towards achieving this objective.
    • For example, Article 38 directs the state to minimize inequalities in income and strive to promote the welfare of the people by securing social, economic, and political justice.
    • Article 39 outlines specific directives to ensure an adequate means of livelihood, equitable distribution of material resources, and equal pay for equal work.
  • Both the Preamble and the DPSP work in tandem to establish the vision of an economically just and welfare state. 

  
   

• 14

  14. Who among the following was not a member of the Drafting Committee of the Constitution of India?

  • A

    A. B. R. Ambedkar
     

  • B

    B. K. M. Munshi
     

  • C

    C. Krishnaswamy lyer
     

  • D

    D. M. K. Gandhi

  Explanation

  (d) M. K. Gandhi was not a member of the Drafting Committee of the Constitution of India. B. R. Ambedkar was the chairman, and K. M. Munshi and Krishnaswamy Iyer were members of the committee. 

  • M. K. Gandhi: Was not a member of the Drafting Committee, although he was a central leader in the independence movement.
  • B. R. Ambedkar: Was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee.
  • K. M. Munshi: Was a member of the Drafting Committee.
  • Krishnaswamy Iyer: Was a member of the Drafting Committee. 
• 15

  15. Which one of the following cases propounded the concept of 'Basic structure' of the Indian Constitution?
   

  • A

    A. Indra Sawhney Case
     

  • B

    B. Shankari Prasad's Case
     

  • C

    C. Rudal Shah's Case
     

  • D

    D. None of the above

  Explanation

  The correct answer is (d) None of the above. The concept of the 'basic structure' of the Indian Constitution was propounded in the landmark 1973 case of Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala, not the other options listed. This case established that while Parliament has the power to amend the Constitution, it cannot alter or destroy its fundamental framework or "basic structure". 

  • (a) Indra Sawhney Case: This case is famous for the Mandal Commission recommendations on reservations for Other Backward Classes (OBCs) and is not related to the basic structure doctrine.
  • (b) Shankari Prasad's Case: This 1951 case held that the Parliament's power to amend the Constitution under Article 368 included the power to amend Fundamental Rights, a view that was later overturned by the basic structure doctrine.
  • (c) Rudal Shah's Case: This case is known for establishing the right to compensation for the violation of fundamental rights by the state and is unrelated to the basic structure doctrine.
  • (d) None of the above: This is the correct answer, as the Kesavananda Bharati case is the one that established the basic structure doctrine.